A Response to “101 Questions For Campbellites”

Introduction

In this article, I am setting out to answer the 101 questions put forth by Mr. A. A. Davis in his article “101 Questions for Campbellites,” which may be accessed by clicking here.

I desire that the reader will see that the answers to these questions are based upon the words of God in the Scriptures, and that they are a product of searching the Scriptures and seeing what things are so. Further, I desire that these answers may found to be a fulfillment of the command of Peter in 1 Peter 3:14-15:

But even if ye should suffer for righteousness’ sake, blessed are ye: and fear not their fear, neither be troubled; but sanctify in your hearts Christ as Lord: being ready always to give answer to every man that asketh you a reason concerning the hope that is in you, yet with meekness and fear.

The Response

Before I begin answering the 101 questions, I would like to first point out the fallacy of the title and the explanation of what “Campbellites” are:

What are Campbellites? They are otherwise known as “The Church of Christ,” or “The Disciples of Christ,” and believe that Water Baptism is essential to salvation in Jesus Christ.

If one investigates the lesson on the Christian Church (Disciples of Christ) (available here) that I wrote as a part of my study of denominations, one will see that the majority of churches of Christ are as “Campbellite” as the Methodists are “Anglican” or the Anglicans are “Catholic.” The Campbells would not have agreed with the positions held by the majority of the members of the churches of Christ on many issues, and very little is spoken of concerning the Campbells in our discussions and teachings. Members of the church of Christ stand without the title “Campbellite,” unless, of course, the Baptists would like to start being known as Calvinists or some other inaccurate designation also.

Regardless, let us begin examining the questions asked and responding to them:

Question: Are YOU saved or Lost? See I Cor. 1:13. Rom 8:1.

Response: Let us examine the Scriptures provided, 1 Corinthians 1:13 and Romans 8:1:

Is Christ divided? Was Paul crucified for you? Or were ye baptized into the name of Paul?

There is therefore now no condemnation to them that are in Christ Jesus.

Those who have obeyed Christ are most certainly saved, for we see in Romans 6:3-5 that those who have been buried with Christ Jesus have been raised in newness of life. The Scriptures make it evident, however, that our salvation is only guaranteed on the basis of our continual faithfulness to Christ, as seen in Matthew 10:22:

“And ye shall be hated of all men for my name’s sake: but he that endureth to the end, the same shall be saved.”

Therefore, we must conclude that we are saved as long as we remain faithful to Christ until the end.

Question: If saved, IS the love of God in YOUR HEART? See Rom. 5:5.

Response: Let us read Romans 5:5:

and hope putteth not to shame; because the love of God hath been shed abroad in our hearts through the Holy Spirit which was given unto us.

I do not know of anyone who would raise an objection to believing that we have the love of God in us. John makes this evident in 1 John 3-4.

Question: If Saved, ARE you Born of God? I John 5:1

Response: 1 John 5:1 reads as follows:

Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is begotten of God: and whosoever loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of him.

And these words are certainly true, for they speak of the “new birth” as seen further in John 3:5 and Romans 6:4:

Jesus answered, “Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except one be born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God!”

We were buried therefore with Him through baptism unto death: that like as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we also might walk in newness of life.

It is also highly interesting to note the means by which we receive newness of life: by being buried with Him through baptism!

Question: If Saved, Is Christ in You? Col. 1:27; 2 Cor. 13:5.

Response: Colossians 1:27 and 2 Corinthians 13:5:

to whom God was pleased to make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory.

Try your own selves, whether ye are in the faith; prove your own selves. Or know ye not as to your own selves, that Jesus Christ is in you? Unless indeed ye be reprobate.

I certainly do not deny that in some form Christ is in each Christian. The language is slightly different in Galatians 3:27:

For as many of you as were baptized into Christ did put on Christ.

The message is the same, however: we are now a part of Christ, and therefore Christ should be a part of us.

Question: If you are Born of God, ARE you a Child of God? John 1:12; Rom. 8:16.

Response: John 1:12 and Romans 8:16:

But as many as received him, to them gave he the right to become children of God, even to them that believe on His name.

The Spirit himself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are children of God.

We are certainly children of God if we do His will, as is seen in 1 John 3:23-24:

And this is his commandment, that we should believe in the name of His Son Jesus Christ, and love one another, even as He gave us commandment. And he that keepeth His commandments abideth in Him, and He in him. And hereby we know that He abideth in us, by the Spirit which He gave us.

Question: If a Child of God, do YOU have Eternal Life? John 10:27, 28.

Response: John 10:27-28:

“My sheep hear My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me: and I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, and no one shall snatch them out of My hand.”

We certainly have eternal life as long as we follow Christ and abide in His will. The verse above does not teach, nor does any other verse in the Bible teach, that regardless of our own actions we must be saved. Matthew 10:22 (quoted above) and many other verses show clearly that our salvation is conditional upon our obedience to Christ.

Question: Is Baptism a PART of the Gospel? I Cor. 1.17

Response: 1 Corinthians 1:17:

For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not in wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made void.

I find it interesting that Mr. Davis has conveniently forgotten to quote here 1 Corinthians 1:15, which gives the reason for Paul’s statement in verse 17:

lest any man should say that ye were baptized into my name.

This is further alluded to in 1 Corinthians 1:13, discussed above by Mr. Davis. We see clearly from Acts 8:35-36 that baptism is assuredly part of the Gospel:

And Philip opened his mouth, and beginning from this Scripture, preached unto him Jesus. And as they went on the way, they came unto a certain water; and the eunuch saith, “Behold, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized?”

Philip preached “unto him Jesus,” and the response of the eunuch was the desire to be immersed in water. Why would this be so unless the need for baptism was impressed upon this eunuch? Baptism was certainly a part of the Gospel preached by Paul, otherwise why would he have baptized the household of Stephanas, Crispus, and Gaius in Corinth (1 Corinthians 1:14, 16)? Paul merely did not desire to perform the actual act of baptism any further, fearing that many would believe that they were baptized “in Paul’s name.” This by no means negates the preaching of the need for baptism!

Question: Could a man without ARMS and Legs preach the Gospel Paul preached?

Response: Certainly. The Gospel can be preached by any man who understands the message of God and can communicate said message in some form.

Question: What is the Gospel Paul Preached? I Cor. 15:1-3.

Response: 1 Corinthians 15:1-3:

Now I make known unto you brethren, the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye received, wherein also ye stand, by which also ye are saved, if ye hold fast the word which I preached unto you, except ye believed in vain. For I delivered unto you first of all that which also I received: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures.

Paul continues in 1 Corinthians 15 to relate the events after Jesus’ resurrection, His ascension, His appearing to Paul, all in the attempt to prove to the Corinthians that the resurrection is valid and it will come to us all at
the end.

What is the Gospel Paul preached? We can see in Galatians 2:6-9 that it was the same Gospel as Peter, James, and John preached:

But from those who were reputed to be somewhat (whatsoever they were, it maketh no matter to me: God accepteth not man’s person)– they, I say, who were of repute imparted nothing to me: but contrariwise, when they saw that I had been entrusted with the gospel of the uncircumcision, even as Peter with the gospel of the circumcision (for he that wrought for Peter unto the apostleship of the circumcision wrought for me also unto the Gentiles); and when they perceived the grace that was given unto me, James and Cephas and John, they who were reputed to be pillars, gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship, that we should go unto the Gentiles, and they unto the circumcision.

We know that Peter spoke of baptism in the Gospel he preached (Acts 2:38, Acts 10:47), and we can be sure therefore that the Gospel preached by all of the men in question included baptism, along with belief, confession, repentance, and the need to continually be faithful to Christ.

Question: Do you preach the Gospel Paul preached? Cor. 1:17 Rom. 1:16, 17; I Cor. 2:2.

Response: 1 Corinthians 1:17 has already been quoted and discussed; let us see Romans 1:16-17 and 1 Corinthians 2:2:

For I am not ashamed of the gospel: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek. For therein is revealed a righteousness of God from faith unto faith: as it is written, “But the righteous shall live by faith.”

For I determined not to know anything among you, save Jesus Christ, and Him crucified.

We have seen from earlier that the Gospel of Paul was the same Gospel preached by Peter, John, and James; we see in the letter of James to Christians that “faith” is nothing without works in James 2:14-17:

What doth it profit, my brethren, if a man say he hath faith, but have not works? Can that faith save him? If a brother or sister be naked and in lack of daily food, and one of you say unto them, “Go in peace, be ye warmed and filled;” and yet ye give them not the things needful to the body; what doth it profit? Even so faith, if it have not works, is dead in itself.

Therefore, I do affirm that the Gospel I preach is the same Gospel preached by Paul, Peter, James, and John.

Question: Is Baptism an act of SOVEREIGN GRACE performed by God or is it an act of righteousness on man’s part? Matt. 3:15; Titus 3:5.

Response: Let us first see Matthew 3:15 and Titus 3:5:

But Jesus answering said unto him, “Suffer it now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness.”
Then he suffereth him.

not by works done in righteousness, which we did ourselves, but according to his mercy he saved us, through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit.

The answer to the question may not be found in either alternative given, for baptism is the response of an individual who sees his fallen condition and recognizes the need to be made right with God, to receive the grace of God given freely to all men, the remission of sin thanks to the sacrifice of the Son. We cannot perform any work that in and of itself allows for salvation: the work has been done by Christ. We can and must, however, accept the work done for us by Christ through obeying Him, and a part of obedience to Christ is being immersed in water for the remission of sin, as is explained in Acts 2:38 and Romans 6:3-5:

And Peter said unto them, “Repent ye, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ unto the remission of your sins; and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.”

Or are ye ignorant that all we who were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death? We were buried therefore with him through baptism unto death: that like as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we also might walk in newness of life. For if we have become united with him in the likeness of his death, we shall be also in the likeness of his resurrection.

Therefore, baptism is not a work of God nor a work of righteousness: it is the act explained in the Scriptures that demonstrates the acceptance of the work done by Christ on our behalf and the commitment to continually abide by His precepts.

Question: Were you redeemed by the precious waters of Baptism or by the precious BLOOD of Jesus Christ? I Peter 1 :18,19.

Response: 1 Peter 1:18-19:

knowing that ye were redeemed, not with corruptible things, with silver or gold, from your vain manner of life handed down from your fathers; but with precious blood, as of a lamb without spot, even the blood of Christ.

It is certainly not denied that we believe that we are redeemed by the precious blood of Jesus Christ. The question that we ask is, “how do we come into contact with that precious blood of Jesus Christ?” I believe the answer to
that question was satisfactorily answered by Paul in Romans 6:3-7: by being buried with Christ in baptism.

Question: If Baptism LITERALLY puts one IN CHRIST, What act LITERALLY puts CHRIST in You? 2 Cor. 13:5; Col. 1:27; Rom. 3:24,25.

Response: We have already seen 2 Corinthians 13:5 and Colossians 1:27 above; let us now read Romans 3:24-25:

being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: whom God set forth to be a propitiation, through faith, in his blood, to show his righteousness because of the passing over of the sins done aforetime, in the forbearance of God.

The difficulty of this question revolves around what “literal” truth is. If by “literal” we mean a physical truth in physical terms, then we are not “literally” in Christ, but if by “literal” we mean a physical truth in spiritual terms, then we are assuredly “in Christ.” What act, then, puts Christ “literally” within us? I must again appeal to 1 John 3:24:

And he that keepeth His commandments abideth in Him, and He in him.

Therefore, when we keep His commandments, we are in Him, and He is in us. When do we start keeping His commandments? When we obey His Gospel; therefore, if one is looking for a “point of origin” for Christ being in us, the Scriptures teach that said point is when one obeys the Gospel for the first time.

Question: Did Jesus Christ know the plan of Salvation? John 14:6.

Response: John 14:6:

Jesus saith unto him, “I am the way, and the truth, and the life: no one cometh unto the Father, but by Me.”

This is certainly true, and may I add 2 Thessalonians 1:6-9 to the discussion:

if so be that it is righteous thing with God to recompense affliction to them that afflict you, and to you that are afflicted rest with us, at the revelation of the Lord Jesus from heaven with the angels of his power in flaming fire, rendering vengeance to them that know not God, and to them that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus: who shall suffer punishment, even eternal destruction from the face of the Lord and from the glory of his might.

Who are those who are condemned? Those who do not know God and those who do not obey the Gospel of our Lord Jesus. Therefore, those who come to Christ are those who obey His Gospel. Therefore, Christ must know the plan of salvation for it requires Him and His sacrifice and the response that man must make when he recognizes his iniquity.

Question: Did Christ at any time or place personally tell a sinner to be baptized FOR or In ORDER to the Remission of Sin? If so WHEN and WHERE?

Response: We read the following in John 4:1-2:

When therefore the Lord knew that the Pharisees had heard that Jesus was making and baptizing more disciples than John (although Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples).

While we do not deny that Jesus Himself was not performing the baptisms, they are clearly being performed with His knowledge and without a doubt His approval.

The point, however, that we must make is that since Christ had not yet sacrificed Himself for the remission of sin and the covenant in His blood had not yet been made, this covenant was not in effect while He trod upon the Earth (cf. Hebrews 7-9). It is amazing, however, to see that after His death and resurrection, the commandment He made to His disciples included the command to baptize those who would be in Christ, as evidenced in Matthew 28:18-20 and Mark 16:16:

And Jesus came to them and spake unto them, saying, “All authority hath been given unto me in heaven and on earth. Go ye therefore, and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them into the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit: teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I commanded you: and lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world.”

He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that disbelieveth shall be condemned.

Therefore, no less than Christ Himself has commanded those who preach in His name to baptize those who wish to receive the remission of sins and to have eternal life. Who are we to disagree?

Question: Did Christ personally, at any time or place say to anyone, He That is Baptized not shall be damned?

Response: Where did Jesus Christ personally, at any time or place say to anyone, that “he that is not baptized shall be saved?” Actually, Christ did say through Paul that those who do not obey Him are not going to be saved in 1 Thessalonians 1:6-9:

if so be that it is righteous thing with God to recompense affliction to them that afflict you, and to you that are afflicted rest with us, at the revelation of the Lord Jesus from heaven with the angels of his power in flaming fire, rendering vengeance to them that know not God, and to them that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus: who shall suffer punishment, even eternal destruction from the face of the Lord and from the glory of his might.

Since it is evident that baptism is part of obedient faith, which we must have (Acts 6:7, Romans 5:1), it is evident that the one who does not obey Christ will be condemned.

Question: Is that Statement: HE THAT IS BAPTIZED NOT SHALL BE DAMNED, to be found anywhere in the Bible? If so . . . Where????

Response: See above. Where does the Bible say that “he who is not baptized shall nonetheless be saved?”

Question: Do you and your brethren, self-styled CHURCH OF CHRIST, not preach and teach, in word, precept and effect, that “HE THAT IS BAPTIZED NOT SHALL BE DAMNED”?

Response: We teach the message of the Scriptures: he who believes and is baptized shall be saved. He who does not obey the Gospel of Christ shall be damned. Where are your Scriptures that reject these principles?

Question: Do you not further pollute your own imaginary scripture by inserting TWO imaginary requirements: (1) That it must be administered by a Church of Christ preacher, and (2) that when the candidate goes under the water, he MUST BELIEVE that act is for OR IN ORDER TO THE REMISSION OF HIS SINS????

Response: This question is obviously full of innuendo, but let us dispense with that for now. I can confirm that the church that assembles in Norwalk, Ohio, by no means teaches that a “Church of Christ” preacher must baptize a person for the latter to be saved; in fact, we would not even know what a “Church of Christ” preacher is, because I have never heard one. I have heard many preachers of the Gospel, but never a “Church of Christ” preacher.

Now, when it comes to being baptized “for the remission of sin,” this is certainly a requirement. Peter says in Acts 2:38 that each person who heard the message needed to repent and to be baptized for the purpose of the remission of sin. This is no imaginary Scripture, but the Word of God. Immersion in water for any other reason is simply a bath, as explained by Peter in 1 Peter 3:21:

which also after a true likeness doth now save you, even baptism, not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the interrogation of a good conscience toward God, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ.

Baptism is not to cleanse the flesh of dirt, but to cleanse the conscience from sin and death so that one may walk in “newness of life.” The requirement of baptism was not made by God so that His children would not smell for a day, but so that His children may receive the remission of their sins! If one who is dunked in water does not do so for this purpose, of what avail is getting wet? Please, reader, think about these things.

Question: Do you not reject Baptist Baptism because of the absence of these two points????

Response: The fact that you speak of “Baptist Baptism” speaks volumes. Where in the Scriptures would I find anyone receiving a “Baptist Baptism?”

Regardless, we do not necessarily always “reject Baptist Baptism;” we simply petition people to examine the reasons for why they were baptized. If they were not immersed in water, they were not baptized. If they were not baptized for the remission of sins, but as a “public action to demonstrate an inner change” or to “become a part of the church,” this is not the baptism for remission of sin which is commanded in the Scriptures, but a bath that comes without redemption and without the burial of the “old man” of Romans 6! We teach that one must be immersed in water for the remission of sins– any other action for any other reason is no longer the baptism that we read about in the Scriptures. This is what we teach. Where in the Scriptures do we find the reasons for a “Baptist Baptism?”

Question: Since you and your brethren ADMITTEDLY preach and teach the above doctrine, in word and deed, and since such statement can not be found in the Scriptures. He That is Baptized not shall be damned, Is it NOT TRUE that you teach a doctrine that IS NOT in the Scriptures?

Response: The truth that those who do not obey Christ are consigned to damnation is most certainly in the Bible, and the fact that baptism is a work of obedience in Christ is also certainly present. Where, pray tell, is your doctrine of “he that is not baptized shall still be saved” to be found in the Scriptures?

Question: You, furthermore, proclaim, your motto: Where the Bible speaks we speak, where the Bible is silent, we are silent: WHY DON’T YOU REMAIN SILENT ON ABOVE DOCTRINE”. “He that is Baptized not shall be damned”, BE SILENT, SUCH statement is NOT IN THE BIBLE.

Response: That’s my motto? I don’t have a motto. I abide by the teachings of the Scriptures, and that is all. Since your belief of “he that is not baptized shall still be saved” is not explicitly in the Scriptures, why do you not remain silent?

Question: Since your entire approach is builded on an imaginary scripture which does not exist, your every effort is made to twist other scriptures and compel THEM to MEAN your Imaginary Scripture. NOW IS THIS STATEMENT FOUND IN THE BIBLE: “He that believeth not shall be damned”? Baptists preach that exactly as listed. DO BAPTISTS PREACH WHAT IS IN THE BIBLE? Now watch him twist.

Response: Funny, I’m not dancing, but actually rather amused. Of course “he that believeth not shall be damned.” Now, here is my question to you: where in the Scriptures does anyone teach that “He that believes but is not baptized shall be saved?” Does anyone teach this? Or is it certain from Mark 16:16 that if A and B then C, but if not A, then not C, that B is predicated upon A? Many Baptists that I have come in contact with teach that “He that believed but is not baptized will still be saved.” Where is this in the Scriptures? Where does Jesus or the rules of logic allow the statement if A and not B then C when all we know is that if A and B then C? Shall I now “watch you twist?”

Question: Is there an instance in the Bible where a sinner was saved without Baptism? Acts 15:9; Luke 7:48; I John 5:4; Acts 26:18; Eph. 1:11-13.

Response: Let us examine these Scriptures, Acts 15:9, Luke 7:48, 1 John 5:4, Acts 26:18, and Ephesians 1:11-13:

and he made no distinction between us and them, cleansing their hearts by faith.

And He said unto her, “Thy sins are forgiven.”

For whatsoever is begotten of God overcometh the world: and this is the victory that hath overcome the world, even our faith.

“to open their eyes, that they may turn from darkness to light and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive remission of sins and an inheritance among them that are sanctified by faith in me.”

in whom also we were made a heritage, having been foreordained according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his will; to the end that we should be unto the praise of his glory, we who had before hoped in Christ: in whom ye also, having heard the word of the truth, the gospel of your salvation,– in whom, having also believed, ye were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise.

Now, to answer the question, and here’s probably a shocker: yes, there are instances in the Bible where sinners were saved without baptism. We see that no one in the Old Testament were baptized in water in the name of Christ for the remission of sin, yet we see in Hebrews 11 that many of these people will be saved. The same goes for those whom Jesus personally forgave while He walked the Earth. However, the important message that must be understood by all men: there is no evidence that under the new covenant in Christ, inaugurated with His death and resurrection and the establishment of the Kingdom in Acts 2, that any man has been saved without being baptized in the name of Christ in water for the remission of sins. None of the verses quoted deny this, but all work together to prove the harmonious whole: God predestined that there shall be a remnant redeemed from amongst the people through the blood of His Son which was shed once for all on the cross, and that these shall obey Him and receive the gift of eternal life.

Question: Is Baptism a command to and for the Saved or Unsaved? Which? Remember there is only ONE BAPTISM!

Response: The Scriptures teach that the unsaved must be immersed in water for the remission of sins: by this process they are burying themselves and being resurrected in newness of life, having put on Christ (Romans 6:3-7, Galatians 3:27). Once one has put on Christ, he is amenable to the words given by John in 1 John 1:9:

If we confess our sins, he is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

The “saved” need not be baptized again and again, but must confess and repent of sin whenever and wherever it may arise.

Question: If to the UNSAVED are not the unsaved UNBORN OF GOD? Now, do you give commands to your child BEFORE IT IS BORN or AFTER it is born? Can an UNBORN child obey a parent?

Response: I believe that Mr. Davis is extending the comparison of the relationship between a Christian and God to the relationship of a child and parent a bit too far. An unborn child has no faculty for understanding, but a mature man or woman most certainly does.

The difficulty with this question seems to be the lack of understanding of the relationship between God and man. We may receive instruction from God with the parable commonly known as the “Prodigal son” of Luke 15. We read of this son, who takes his inheritance and squanders it, and then attempts to return to his father. The conclusion of this story is seen in Luke 15:32:

“But it was meet to take merry and be glad: for this thy brother was dead, and is alive again; and was lost, and is found.”

What is the message in the story of the prodigal son? We learn that every single human being is a son of God. Some are faithful to the Father, and many are not faithful. They are all still children of God, however, and they all may be received back into the fold. The comparison is made between a legitimate child and an illegitimate child in Hebrews 12, and the comparison is valid: those of the world become illegitimate children of God through their conscious disobedience to His commands. Nowhere in the Bible does it teach that a person is never amenable to the Father– he was born of God when he was born (made evident by the teaching of Christ concerning children in Matthew 18), but decided to forsake his inheritance in Heaven by committing sin. Such a person must be “re-born” into God to receive the promise of eternal life. He must become a legitimate child of God again, no longer illegitimate. Therefore, your question has a foundation that is not of the Scriptures, for all are accountable to God, and therefore all may hear the message and respond to the Gospel of our Lord.

Question: Do you and your Brethren not teach that the COMMANDS of God are given to the UNBORN and that they, the commands are but instruments BY WHICH the UNBORN can obtain BIRTH?

Response: The commands of God have been given to all, and this is made evident in the “Great Commission” to teach all men of the commands of our Lord (Matthew 28:18-20). The “unborn” of whom you speak need “re-birth” into Christ (cf. John 3), and they are fully able to understand the need to come to repentance.

You boast of LOGIC -where is there any LOGIC to this matter?

Response: There is plenty of logic: all humans who have sinned are amenable to the law of God, and all must come to Him if they desire eternal life.

Question: If you say -Baptism is a command for the SAVED – you find yourself in the BAPTIST position, EXACTLY This you do not teach or believe. See Acts 2:41. WHO was baptized here?

Reponse: Acts 2:41:

They then that received his word were baptized: and there were added {unto them} in that day about three thousand souls.

Whose word was received? The words of Peter concerning Christ. Who are they? The Jews who had assembled in Jerusalem for the Pentecost festival. What command were they fulfilling? The command originally given to them in verse 38. Since these persons had not yet been saved until they fulfilled the commands of the Lord beginning in verse 41, this proves rather well that the need for baptism is upon the unsaved.

Question: Do you and your Brethren not also teach and believe- that Jesus Christ was not the Son of God until after His Baptism?

Response: This doctrine is dynamistic Monarchianism, and I do not adhere to this doctrine, and neither do the saints who assemble in Norwalk, Ohio.

Question: Whose Son was He in BETHLEHEM’S MANGER?

Response: Jesus was supposedly the son of Joseph, but assuredly was the Son of God.

Question: Is not the sum of your doctrine simply this: He that lives Closest to the creek, lives closest to the Lord? He that lives furthest from the creek, lives furtherest from the Lord? Does this not place the DESERT dwellers at a distinct disadvantage? Then a Man’s Salvation would be simple or difficult according to his GEOGRAPHICAL location? Does this sound like Jesus Christ in John 3:16?

Response: This question would possibly have some merit if you could demonstrate a group of people who constantly inhabit a place on Earth that does not have water. Water is the one essential substance of life, and man constantly requires it. Deserts are clearly not a problem, for Philip and the eunuch were riding on a desert road in Acts 8:31-39, and there was water found for baptism.

Question: Are the FAMILY of God, the KINGDOM OF GOD and the CHURCH OF GOD ALL one and the SAME??

Response: No. The church of God (or the church of Christ, the church of the Firstborn, whichever designation one desires to use) refers to those who are of Christ and have called upon His name. The church of God, etc., are surely a part of the Family/Kingdom of God, but the Family/Kingdom of God also includes the faithful of the Old Testament period.

Question: Do all who belong to the family of God also belong to the Church of God?

Response: See above. The family of God would include the Church of God but also the faithful of the Old Testament period.

Question: Did God have a family before Pentecost?

Response: It depends on how we define “have.” If we define “have” as meaning “having people who are faithful to Him and obey Him,” then absolutely– we find a multitude of examples in the Old Testament (let alone Hebrews 11) of individuals obedient to God. If we define “have,” however, as “having a family present with Him in Heaven,” then He did not have a family before Pentecost and will not until the Judgment (Matthew 25:31-46).

Question: Then is it now possible to become a member of the family of God and not become a member of the Church at the same time?

Response: When one becomes a Christian and is a part of His Church, he is a part of the family of God.

Question: When and How did Jesus become a member of the Church of Christ?

Response: We have been told about Jesus’ relation to the church in Ephesians 5:23-27:

For the husband is the head of the wife, and Christ also is the head of the church, being himself the saviour of the body. But as the church is subject to Christ, so let the wives also be to their husbands in everything. Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself up for it; that he might sanctify it, having cleansed it by the washing of water with the word, that he might present the church to himself a glorious church, not having spot or wrinkle or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish.

Therefore, we see that Christ established the Church with His blood and is now the head of the Body.

Question: When and How did the Apostles become members of the Church of Christ?

Response: We are told about the relation of the Apostles to the Church in Ephesians 2:19-20:

So then ye are no more strangers and sojourners, but ye are fellow-citizens with the saints, and of the household of God, being built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus himself being the chief corner stone.

Therefore, we see that the Apostles also represent the foundation of the church, having preached the Word so that the Church would grow.

Question: Was John’s Baptism, Christian Baptism?

Response: John’s baptism was simply of repentance, and is not “Christian” baptism, as is made evident by Paul in Acts 19:1-6, when he baptized again those who were baptized under John.

Question: Who Baptized Jesus Christ?

Response: John baptized Jesus Christ, not for repentance, but to fulfill all righteousness, as we see in Matthew 3:13-15:

Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to the Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. But John would have hindered him, saying, “I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?”
But Jesus answering said unto him, “Suffer it now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness.”
Then he suffereth him.

There is endless debate over what “fulfill all righteousness” refers to, but it is evident that Jesus was baptized to serve as an example for us.

Question: Did Jesus Christ have Christian Baptism?

Response: As we have seen above, Christ did not need any form of baptism, but He was baptized by John most probably to serve as an example for us. “Christian” baptism is done in the name of Christ; why would Christ be baptized in His own Name?

Question: Have you received the same kind of Baptism, Jesus and the Apostles received?

Response: Sinners cannot receive the a baptism of example as Christ did, and the nature of the baptism of the Apostles is not known. We see that in John 4:1-2 above, the disciples did baptize people into a baptism of Jesus, and they probably received that baptism. If that is the case, then I have received the same baptism of the Apostles.

Question: Is Jesus Christ the Head of the Church of Christ?

Response: We are assuredly told in Ephesians 5:23-27 that Christ is the Head of the Body and the source of all authority.

Question: Since the Head of the Church received ONLY John’s Baptism, is not John’s Baptism, Christian Baptism?

Response: By no means, since Christ, when He received all authority in Heaven and on Earth, commanded His disciples to baptize members of all nations in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit in Matthew 28:18-20. The baptism of John was never commanded, and you have not yet demonstrated that anyone can receive the baptism by example that Christ received.

Question: Or Has the Head of the Church received one KIND of Baptism and the Church altogether another Kind?

Response: There is a difference between the baptism of John and the baptism commanded by Christ. There is even really a difference between the baptism of John for repentance, and the baptism of Christ by John as an example. Regardless, there is only one form of valid baptism today, exemplified by Paul and his actions in Acts 19:1-6:

And it came to pass, that, while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul having passed through the upper country came to Ephesus, and found certain disciples: and he said unto them, “Did ye receive the Holy Spirit when ye believed?”
And they said unto him, “Nay, we did not so much as hear whether the Holy Spirit was given.”
And he said, “Into what then were ye baptized?”
And they said, “Into John’s baptism.”
And Paul said, “John baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people that they should believe on him that should come after him, that is, on Jesus.”
And when they heard this, they were baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Spirit came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.

It is made evident here that the baptism of John looked forward to the baptism of Christ, and those receiving only the former required the latter. The Scriptures do not lie.

Question: Alexander Campbell received BAPTIST BAPTISM, and died with it. Did he go to heaven or hell? Campbell never did repudiate this baptism by a Baptist preacher, was he saved or lost?

Response: We have been told in James 4:12 (quoted above) that we have no right to judge, and therefore I will not do so. I would ask, however, if Alexander Campbell was immersed in water for remission of sin; if this is the case, then he would recognize from the Scriptures that he would not need re-baptism. Whatever may happen, the fate of Alexander Campbell has nothing to do with the message of Scripture and the commands which Christ has given to us.

Question: What kind of Baptism did the Apostles receive? Were they saved or Lost?

Response: We are not specifically told what form of baptism the Apostles received, but it is my belief that they received baptism in the name of Christ since that is what they themselves were doing in John 4:1-2. I do know for certain that Paul received baptism, for we are told as much in Acts 9:18. Again, I am not to judge, but it appears that the Apostles recognized that they would be saved if they remained obedient to Christ (1 Corinthians 9:24-27, 2 Timothy 4:7-8).

Question: What kind of Baptism did these Disciples who were baptized by the Apostles on the authority of Christ during his personal ministry receive? John 4:1-2. Were they saved or Lost? Was this before Pentecost?

Response: Again, we are not specifically told what kind of baptism was received by the disciples, but I believe that it sufficed for remission of sin. Again, I am not their judge, God is, and He knows whether or not those who received that baptism were faithful to Christ. This was before Pentecost. In no way, shape, or form, however, do these examples nullify the commandments of Christ for those now amenable to Him.

Question: How was Abraham Saved? David? Enoch? John the Baptist? The Virgin Mary? The Demoniac of Gedara? The Penitent thief?

Response: All of those that you mention who died before the proclamation of the Kingdom were saved by faithfulness to the law of God to which they were amenable and/or the direct announcement of Christ. This by no means negates the requirements of the law of God to which we are all amenable, that of Christ.

Question: How were sinners saved between the Crucifixion of Christ and the Day of Pentecost?

Response: When God judges them on the day of Judgment, they will be judged properly on their deeds against the law to which they were amenable.

Question: How is Abraham the FATHER of the FAITHFUL when he was not Baptized by a Campbellite preacher?

Response: Abraham lived long before Christ and in the body was not amenable to the law of Christ, but was amenable to the commands of God which were given to him.

Question: Since the same FAITH dwelled in Timothy, his Mother and his Grandmother, were they not all saved alike?

Response: We read the following in 2 Timothy 1:5:

having been reminded of the unfeigned faith that is in thee; which dwelt first in thy grandmother Lois, and thy mother Eunice; and, I am persuaded, in thee also.

The faith that they all had was faith in God, first of those under the covenant with Moses, and with the revelation of the work of Christ, faith in God through Christ. We know that if nothing else both Timothy and Eunice had faith in God through Christ, as seen in Acts 16:1:

And he came also to Derbe and to Lystra: and behold, a certain disciple was there, named Timothy, the son of a Jewess that believed; but his father was a Greek.

We are not told how long Lois lived, if she was amenable to the Gospel of Christ or not; we may be certain, however, that if she was amenable to that Gospel, she certainly believed in Him. Regardless, they were saved through the faith that they had in God according to the covenant to which they were amenable.

Question: Who preached the Gospel to Abraham? Galatians 3:8.

Response: Galatians 3:8:

And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand unto Abraham, saying, “In thee shall all the nations be blessed.”

This text is not saying that the “Gospel” of the New Testament, i.e. the relation of the death of Jesus Christ for our sins and His resurrection and the need to obey Him, was preached to Abraham, but that the “good news” was given to Abraham through the promise of God that “in [Abraham] shall all the nations be blessed.” This is the “preaching of the Gospel” to Abraham– that the Christ would descend from Him, and all the nations would be blessed in Him.

Question: What Prophet in the Old Testament prophesied of BAPTISM?

Response: It is interesting that when we note Joel 2:32,

And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of Jehovah shall be delivered; for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem there shall be those that escape, as Jehovah hath said, and among the remnant those whom Jehovah doth call.

which is also partly quoted by Peter in Acts 2:21, we see Joel speaking of “calling upon the name of the Lord” for salvation, and we further read that Paul performed the following deed in Acts 22:16:

“And now why tarriest thou? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on His name.”

Therefore, we see that “calling upon the name of Lord” is equated with baptism, and this was spoken of by the prophet Joel.

Question: Did Peter preach to Cornelius that all the prophets bore witness to the fact that whosoever believeth in Him shall receive remission of sin? Acts 10:43. Do you believe what Peter said?

Response: Acts 10:43:

To him bear all the prophets witness, that through his name every one that believeth on him shall receive remission of sins.

We have seen in the Scripture in Joel above that “calling upon His name” was in some way equated with “baptism,” and we can see from a comparison of Acts 16:31 and Acts 16:33 that belief and baptism also seem to be correlated:

And they said, “Believe on the Lord Jesus, and thou shalt be saved, thou and thy house”…And he took them the same hour of the night, and washed their stripes; and was baptized, he and all his, immediately.

Why were they baptized immediately unless baptism was a requirement of belief? Further, why did Peter insist upon the following in Acts 10:47-48?

“Can any man forbid the water, that these should not be baptized, who have received the Holy Spirit as well as we?”
And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days.

Therefore, I certainly believe that Peter spoke of the need of belief in Christ, and there is no belief in Christ unless one believes in obeying Him, as is made manifest by James in James 2:19:

Thou believest that God is one; thou doest well: the demons also believe, and shudder.

“Belief” is not mere intellectual assent to the proposition that Christ lived and died for us, but an active desire to obey Him since He has done so much for us.

Question: If Peter preached Baptism, FOR or IN ORDER TO REMISSION OF SIN in Acts 2:38, why did he not preach the same thing to Cornelius in Acts 10:42,43?

Response: We read in Acts 10:44 the following:

While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Spirit fell on all them that heard the word.

Therefore, the Scriptures make it evident that Peter had not yet finished speaking to Cornelius concerning the Gospel of Christ. We see in Peter’s sermon in Acts 2 that he first exhorted those to whom he preached to believe, and when they responded in an attempt to determine what they should do, he preached repentance and baptism. It is of exceeding interest, however, that Acts 10:47-48, quoted above, show that Peter’s immediate reaction to Cornelius and his men having received the Holy Spirit was to command them to be baptized. If baptism was not important, and not necessary for those who receive the Holy Spirit, why did Peter immediately insist on them being baptized?

Question: In your sugar text which you yourself do not understand (Acts 2:38) how many words BETWEEN the word BAPTISM and the word REMISSION? You will have to cut 11 words out of your text before you can JOIN BAPTISM TO REMISSION OF SIN. What means these 11 words – which you and your brethren always avoid?

Response: Let us again examine Acts 2:38:

And Peter said unto them, “Repent ye, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ unto the remission of your sins; and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.”

We must grammatically examine this sentence. First, there is the command (“be baptized”). Then we see to whom the command is directed (“every one of you”), followed by a prepositional phrase that demonstrates the authority of the baptism (“in the name of Jesus Christ”), and then the purpose of the baptism (“unto the remission of your sins”). This phrase of Peter would be just as grammatically correct if it were rendered “and be baptized unto the remission of your
sins every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ.” This is basic grammatical understanding that does not change between English and Greek.

Question: What is the Greek Word translated or rather Anglicized into the word Christ in Acts 2:38? Why don’t you put the exact Greek word in the text and then read Acts 2:38 to your people and quit making a childish play on the preposition FOR? When you do this you find complete harmony with Acts 10:43 and John 3:16 -Just a little kink right here
give the people the original there- you won’t have to notice the preposition so technically.

Response: The word “for” is the Greek term eis, and it is translated most properly in the ASV as “unto.” It is a clause of purpose in the Greek, which is far more grammatically specific than English is, and it is most certainly not causal as Baptists would like to make it out to be. Eis is translated as a clause of purpose many other times in the Scriptures; how come there is no debate about these translations until we reach Acts 2:38? And how come the “Evangelical” NIV does not translate it any differently than the NASB or the KJV? This argument has no basis in the Greek.

Question: Does the word WATER as used in John 3:5 mean Baptism? Why didn’t Christ say what he meant to say? If he really meant Baptism -when he said water- by the same reasoning – He evidently meant Baptism in the next Chapter (John 4:7-15). Read again the story of the Woman at the well -substitute the word Baptism for Water everywhere it is found in the story exactly as you substitute the word Baptism for water in John 3:5- see what a story you make. False Doctrines always lead to muddy water. Where the Bible speaks -we speak.

Response: You are not speaking where the Bible speaks, because the Bible conforms to rules of context, which you seem adamant to destroy.

We read the following in John 3:3-7:

Jesus answered and said unto him, “Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except one be born anew, he cannot see the kingdom of God.”
Nicodemus saith unto him, “How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter a second time into his mother’s womb, and be born?”
Jesus answered, “Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except one be born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God! That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. Marvel not that I said unto thee, ‘Ye must be born anew.'”

Jesus is evidently speaking to Nicodemus about the “second birth,” the destruction of the desire of the flesh for the desire of the Spirit. The earthly birth is of the flesh, and has no place in this discussion: one must be born of the water (baptism) and Spirit. Jesus is not speaking of two births here, is He? By no means!

In the story of John 4:9-15 is in a completely different context, Jesus speaking to a woman at a well of literal water. This story in and of itself uses water in two different senses– the literal, represented by the water present, and the spiritual, the “living water” or the word spoken by Christ that gives eternal life to those who hear and do it. The term “water” is not even used in the same sense in this passage alone, and you would have us believe that the term “water” must be used in the same sense in the same form throughout the Scriptures? Think on these things.

Question: The sermon to Nicodemus was BEFORE Pentecost- Did Christ jump the gun by preaching to him when Pentecost had not come.

Response: We are told the following in Matthew 4:23:

And Jesus went about in all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues, and preaching the gospel of the kingdom, and healing all manner of disease and all manner of sickness among the people.

Jesus was preaching the “gospel of the kingdom,” but the Kingdom was not to be established on earth until Pentecost (Joel 2:28-32, Matthew 24-25). Jesus was teaching concerning the things that would be, not necessarily the things that were at that time. It is beyond a doubt that Jesus taught Nicodemus about this kingdom in John 3, since Jesus even mentions it, and therefore we conclude that Jesus was teaching Nicodemus concerning the things that would be in the future.

Question: Is the term “CHURCH OF GOD” a Scriptural term?

Response: The Church of God is a designation given to the church by Paul in multiple places (e.g. 1 Corinthians 1:2), and therefore may be an acceptable designation of His Church.

Question: Do you recognize people who call themselves CHURCH OF GOD?

Response: They may call themselves the “Church of God,” but they are not His Church unless they conform to His Will and submit to be governed by Him. I have seen that there are many doctrines taught by this organization that are not in harmony with the Scriptures; therefore, I will not fellowship nor worship with them (for more evidence on this group, please click here).

Question: Does wearing a Scriptural NAME alone mean that BODY is a Scriptural Body? Upon that grounds do you refuse to recognize the Holiness people who call themselves by the name CHURCH OF GOD?

Response: No, a Scriptural designation (since Christ never named the Body) alone does not make a church “Scriptural.” Only when the church is the “pillar and support of the truth” as it is supposed to be in 1 Timothy 3:15 will it be a “Scriptural” church. The grounds upon which I do not believe the various denominations deemed “Church of God” represent the truth of the Scriptures may be found at the link above.

Question: If those people are going to Hell in spite of their name (According to your doctrine they are all lost), Then it will take MORE THAN A BIBLE name to save them -will it not?

Response: You have again impugned upon my beliefs, confidently asserting that “according to [my] doctrine they are all lost.” I believe and teach only that their teachings are not in harmony with the Scriptures, and that God will judge them and us.

Regardless, a designation alone does not save. There must be some substance behind the designation.

Question: If it takes more than a BIBLE NAME to save the Holiness, this they will admit: Will it take more than a Bible name to save you? Will you admit it?

Response: I have never asserted that a designation alone saves; we seek a designation found in the Scriptures because we desire to be the church seen in the Scriptures.

Question: Were the Converts and Disciples called CHRISTIANS on the Day of Pentecost? Were they saved? The Antioch Believers (Acts 11:26) were first to be called CHRISTIANS (10 years after Pentecost). Were the Antioch Believers any more saved than the Pentecost Believers? Did they call THEMSELVES Christians- or were they CALLED CHRISTIANS?

Response: We see that there are some names given to those who obeyed Christ: they were called disciples (Acts 6:1), “those who believed” (Acts 2:44), and “Christian” (Acts 10:26). Salvation was not dependent on the name they were called individually, but upon their faith in Christ. While we are told that the disciples were first “called” Christians in Antioch in Acts 11:26, we also read the following in 1 Peter 4:16:

but if a man suffer as a Christian, let him not be ashamed; but let him glorify God in this name.

Therefore, “those who believed” and “the disciples” also called themselves Christians.

Question: Did Jesus or His Apostles anywhere in the 4 Gospels use the word Christians? Did Jesus know what to call his Followers? If it is of Divine Origin-why did not the name Originate with Jesus the True Authority in matters of religion?

Response: The name “Christian” obviously did come with divine approval, for we read the following in Matthew 16:18-19:

“And I also say unto thee, that thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of Hades shall not prevail against it. I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven; and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.”

Roman Catholic doctrine notwithstanding, Jesus here is obviously referring to a time in the near future where Peter (and the other Apostles) would be entrusted with the message of the Gospel with the authority of Christ. Since this same Peter in 1 Peter 4:16 used the term “Christian” to denote a believer, we may be confident that this was a part of the authority of proclaiming what was loosed and bound in Heaven by the authority of Christ.

Question: Did Jesus say to Nicodemus “Ye Must be born again” or did He say “Ye must be Baptized and wear the name Christian”, Which?

Response: Jesus told Nicodemus what was quoted above in John 3:3-7: one must be born again of water and of the Spirit to enter the Kingdom of God. Only the rebirth is spoken of here, and Jesus is making a clear reference to baptism and to the Kingdom that He spoke of constantly as almost near. Therefore, we may conclude that Jesus was teaching Nicodemus about the Kingdom approaching, that its citizens would not gain that right through birth but through their re-birth into Christ.

Question: Were the members of “Church of God at Corinth” LOST because Paul failed to call them CHURCH OF CHRIST?

Response: It has already been stated that “church of Christ” is not a name but a designation of the church found in the Scriptures. The members of the church in Corinth would be saved or lost upon the judgment that will be rendered according to their deeds.

Question: Is it possible for anyone to be a Believer who is a member of a church not called the CHURCH OF CHRIST?

Response: A believer will desire to be in a church that has a designation that is found to be in the Scriptures to describe the Church purchased with the blood of Christ. A believer will find such a church since he will want to obey God in all things.

Question: Were these people lost who were members of the Church of God at Corinth?

Response: The members of the Church of (God, Christ, the Firstborn, etc.) at Corinth will be saved or lost according to the judgment of Christ. It is my personal belief that the designation they used was not improper, and that the church that was in Corinth in the first century did not share the doctrinal positions of the current denomination named the “Church of God.”

Question: Were there any Churches in the New Testament -not called by the name- CHURCH OF CHRIST? Were their members saved or lost?

Response: Actually, there was no local congregation in the New Testament that had any name. The local congregations recognized that they were the assembly of believers and would often use a description that demonstrated who owned them. Therefore, they were deemed the “assembly of Christ,” or the “assembly of God,” or the “assembly of the Firstborn,” or what have you. The Christians of the first century will be judged upon the same basis as the rest of us, according to our deeds (Matthew 16:27).

Question: Is the term THE CHURCH OF CHRIST found as a TITLE to any one CHURCH in the Bible anywhere? Give CASE AND NUMBER OF ROM. 16:16.

Response: Who is asserting that the “church of Christ” is a title given to a church? Again, the phrase is simply a designation of the ownership of that Body, and the term is found in the Scriptures. Here is Romans 16:16:

Salute one another with a holy kiss. All the churches of Christ salute you.

Since we are told in Ephesians 4:4 that there is only one Body and in Colossians 1:18 that the Body is the Church, we safely conclude that Paul is not speaking of two or more “church universals,” but two or more local congregations of the “church universal.” Multiple local congregations may be designated by the term “churches of Christ,” and one local congregation may be designated as a “church of Christ.” The charge of “title” is yours and yours alone.

Question: Where was your CHURCH OF CHRIST when Alexander Campbell was being baptized by a Baptist preacher?

Response: There is actually much evidence that supports the conclusion that there were multiple congregations of believers who followed the message of the Scriptures and used the designation “church of Christ” long before Alexander Campbell, and, interestingly enough, long before John Smythe ever walked the Earth. This evidence may be
found by clicking here.

Question: Was Elder Luce, the Baptist preacher who Baptized Campbell, a Christian? Did Baptist Baptism put Alexander Campbell into the Church of Christ? If not, when and how did Campbell become a member of the Church of Christ?

Response: Again, I do not know the nature of Campbell’s baptism but I do know that he desired to use the designation “Disciples of Christ.” I am not aware, nor can I be aware, of whether or not Alexander Campbell was in the “Church of Christ,” the church universal, until the Judgment Day.

Question: If Baptist Baptism put Campbell INTO CHRIST and HIS CHURCH -why will not Baptist Baptism do the same for people today?

Response: Again, will you please show the Scripture that speaks of “Baptist Baptism?” I have not heard of such.

There may certainly be people who are immersed in water for the remission of their sins in the Baptist denomination. This, however, does not guarantee admission into Christ, unless one walks according to the commandments of the Scriptures.

Question: If Elder Luce did not Baptize Campbell INTO Christ when and where and HOW did Campbell ever get into Christ- since he died with Baptist Baptism, and never did repudiate it?

Response: See above. Where do we hear of “Baptist Baptism,” and I am not the judge of Campbell.

Question: If Campbell were baptized into the Church of Christ by Luce’s act, then was not the Church of Christ in fact already here?

Response: The Church of Christ has existed since Pentecost, according to the faithful word of Christ (Matthew 18:20). This is irrespective of Campbell or Luce.

Question: Then, How could Campbell’s movement, “RESTITUTIONS”, “THE REFORMATION”, “THE CHRISTIAN ASSOCIATION”, “DISCIPLES OF CHRIST’, “CHURCH OF CHRIST”, “CHRISTIAN CHURCH”, ETC., EVER become the ORIGINAL CHURCH OF CHRIST?

Response: Campbell’s movement was not the “church of Christ,” but the Restoration Movement seen in the Disciples of Christ (Christian Church), spoken of above. Many in the twentieth century came out of this movement and saw the truth of the Scriptures, and designated themselves with the same name used for thousands of years to denote a group of Christians attempting to follow the Scriptures alone.

Question: Are you a member of the ORIGINAL GENUINE CHURCH OF CHRIST or the one that grew out of Campbell’s Reform movement? The Church of which Campbell was a member, he got in by BAPTIST BAPTISM. DO YOU HAVE THAT SAME BAPTISM? Then, if not, you do NOT BELONG to the original New Testament Church, but to the one that grew out of Campbell’s movement . . . SELAH.

Response: I am a member of the “called out of Christ,” a group of Christians that have existed since Pentecost and proclaim the Gospel of our Lord. I have no part in Campbell, and actually disagree with him on some tenets of faith. Campbell’s actions have no bearing on the Scriptures and my obedience to Christ. The “assembly of Christ” existed long before Campbell and exist well after him.

Question: Can you show in History anywhere on earth, a Church organized and operating as your self-styled Church of Christ operates today prior to 1826? Where was it located? What your authority? The scholarship of the world awaits your answer.

Response: Keith Sisman in England has found plenty of evidence of groups of Christians meeting in various places in Europe under the designation of “church of Christ,” and by all accounts, attempted to be faithful to the Scriptures. His evidence may be found by clicking here.

Question: Where was YOUR CHURCH OF CHRIST from Pentecost until Campbell’s day? Almost 1800 years are unaccounted for. Where were YOU and your BRETHREN?

Response: See above. By the way, where was the “Baptist church” between 100-1600?

Question: Is it not a fact the ANTI-ORGAN wing of Campbell’s movement split off a few years ago and got their younger set registered in Washington as THE CHURCH OF CHRIST?

Response: Very possibly. They may also be faithful to the Word of God; I do not know. Regardless, I will trust that God knows His flock better than the state of Washington.

Question: All Historians trace the origin of your young set back through the organ-wing of the Campbellite Church, back to the days of Campbell, Walter Scott and Barton W. Stone. Can you trace your origin beyond this date? Are Historians all liars or just plain ignorant?

Response: The evidence above has been recently uncovered and is available for all to see.

Question: Your Doctrine of Church and Baptismal Salvation are both Fundamental doctrines. Did you know that the Catholics, the Mormons, the Jehovah Witnesses, and one Branch of the Holiness sect, are EXACTLY in harmony with you on these points? They tell the world the same story about Baptism and Church membership that you do — identical doctrines. Why don’t you fellowship these people?

Response: We are not in fellowship with them because they teach many doctrines we disagree with (details may be found through clicking here).

I will throw the question back at you: the Mormons, Jehovah’s Witnesses, Seventh-Day Adventists, and Christian Science teach along with you that Jesus Christ will return to rule over the Earth for a thousand years. Why don’t you have association with these people?

Question: Why don’t you tell your people the truth about the Music Question? What means the Greek Word PSALMOS or the Hebrew word MIZMOR? Read I Cor. 14:15, and define the words as you go. BOTH THESE WORDS MEAN “TO PLAY ON THE HARP OR OTHER STRINGED INSTRUMENT.” (Liddell and Scott, 28th. Ed. Clarendon Press, 1903) (Standard Lexicon of New Testament Greek, Souter, 1916) Would David be able to worship at your Church should he return to earth? If Musical Instruments are so sinful, why will a Trumpet be blown at the Resurrection Day? Will you rise and rebuke the BLOWER of the TRUMPET and refuse to fellowship HIM because he uses AN EVIL INSTRUMENT ON THAT SACRED OCCASION? Read Psalm 150 for a good tonic.

Response: What does David or the Old Testament have to do with our salvation? They were under the Law; Paul tells us the following in Ephesians 2:14-16:

For he is our peace, who made both one, and brake down the middle wall of partition, having abolished in the flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; that he might create in himself of the two one new man, so making peace; and might reconcile them both in one body unto God through the cross, having slain the enmity thereby.

Further, by desiring to make us amenable to the doctrines of the Old Law, you become guilty of Galatians 3:10:

For as many as are of the works of the law are under a curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one who continueth not in all things that are written in the book of the law, to do them.

I want no part of your curse: I desire to be amenable to the words of Christ. In the New Testament, we are told to sing. We are not told to use instrumental music. Psalms can most assuredly be sung without instruments, and there is in fact no historical evidence of any “church” using an instrument before the seventh century.

If David were to return to Earth today and desired to obey God, he would believe in Christ, confess Him, repent of his sins and be immersed in water for the remission of his sins. He would then be faithful to God and assemble with the saints, and would sing praises to His name. This is what all are to do who are amenable to Christ.

Concerning the Revelation and trumpets, the book is completely symbolic and trumpets represent the announcement of the return of Christ. Instruments are not portrayed negatively in the New Testament; they are simply not commanded to be used. You attach the negativity to them if anyone does. Regardless, where does John command us, today, in the “church militant,” to use instruments? Or are we authorized simply because it is used as an example? If this is so, are we commanded to steal by Christ in Matthew 12:29?

“Or how can one enter into the house of the strong man, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.”

You have not yet shown that instruments may be used by Christians according to the Scriptures. You have further not demonstrated that the lack of use of instruments is in any way or form sinful.

Question: You loudly quote Mark 16:16 (First clause only), I don’t believe that you or your brethren really believe Mark 16:16, any of it. He that believeth and is Baptized shall be saved? Only 2 things are mentioned. ARE YOU GOING TO HEAVEN? Your answer is I DON’T KNOW. HOW MANY IF’S AND PROVISOS will you have to insert into Mark 16:16, before
you will take it, At least five.

Response: Mark 16:16 teaches us two tenets of faith: we must believe and we must be baptized to be saved. We are taught in Matthew 10:22 that the one who endures will be saved. We are told in Romans 10:9-10 that we are to confess Him and repent of sin to be saved. Has God lied to us? Has He contradicted Himself? God forbid! Salvation is dependent on many factors, and there is no verse in the Bible that is a “catch-all” that gives every possible factor. How can you factorize the relationship between man and God? Why do you desire to do so?

Question: If you lose your present salvation, can you ever be saved a second time. Give a Chapter and verse for your answer.

Response: 1 John 1:9:

If we confess our sins, he is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

Question: If you are saved NOW but might become UNSAVED tomorrow, would it not be wise for God to let you DIE today?

Response: Hear the words of Paul in Philippians 1:23:

But I am in a strait betwixt the two, having the desire to depart and be with Christ; for it is very far better.

It is always better if Christ were to allow us to be with Him today, for our hope is better than our present. We have work to do, however, and we must perform that work until we are called home. 1 Corinthians 9:24-27 explains our position well:

Know ye not that they that run in a race run all, but one receiveth the prize? Even so run; that ye may attain. And every man that striveth in the games exerciseth self-control in all things. Now they do it to receive a corruptible crown; but we an incorruptible. I therefore so run, as not uncertainly; so fight I, as not beating the air: but I buffet my body, and bring it into bondage: lest by any means, after that I have preached to others, I myself should be rejected.

Question: In that case, would you not be outliving your salvation?

Response: How have you received the idea that salvation is a right, not a privilege? Salvation explains our current relationship with God and the hope in the future, no more, no less. How can one “outlive” a condition that exists conditionally in the present and as a hope for the future?

Question: Will God let you live TOO LONG?

Response: I will live as long as God wills. No longer, no shorter. Am I even capable of living longer than God allows me to?

Question: If He does, and you die and go to HELL, it is not God’s Fault?

Response: If I am consigned to Hell, it is because I have sinned and fallen short in the eyes of God. God is not responsible for my sin.

Question: How good will you have to be before God saves you?

Response: John speaks well of this in 1 John 2:3-5:

And hereby we know that we know him, if we keep his commandments. He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him; but whoso keepeth his word, in him verily hath the love of God been perfected.

Salvation will be granted on the basis of knowing God, which is evidenced by keeping His commandments.

Question: Did Jesus Die to save SINNERS or GOOD PEOPLE?

Response: Are there good people? Romans 3:23:

for all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God.

Did Jesus die only for a few? Hebrews 9:11-12:

But Christ having come a high priest of the good things to come, through the greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this creation, nor yet through the blood of goats and calves, but through his own blood, entered in once for all into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption.

All are sinners, and Christ died for us all.

Question: If Baptism was essential to your FIRST Salvation is it not also essential to being saved a second time?

Response: By no means, since we have been told in 1 John 1:9 that once we are baptized we confess our sins to God, and we see from the example in 1 Corinthians 5 and 2 Corinthians 2:4-8 that a man may be re-admitted into the fold.

Question: Name one person in the Bible who was saved a second time?

Response: There is the man who “had his father’s wife” in 1 Corinthians 5. He was “delivered over to Satan,” but we read the following in 2 Corinthians 2:4-8 concerning him:

For out of much affliction and anguish of heart I wrote unto you with many tears; not that ye should be made sorry, but that ye might know the love that I have more abundantly unto you. But if any hath caused sorrow, he hath caused sorrow, not to me, but in part (that I press not too heavily) to you all. Sufficient to such a one is this punishment which was inflicted by the many; so that contrariwise ye should rather forgive him and comfort him, lest by any means such a one should be swallowed up with his overmuch sorrow. Wherefore I beseech you to confirm your love toward him.

Question: Is not your entire program a matter of salvation by works?

Response: No more than yours is by requiring belief and repentance.

We are saved by grace through faith, as explained in Ephesians 2:8-9. Nothing we can do will ever merit our salvation: no work we perform atones for our sins. Christ is our atonement, for God’s grace was made manifest in allowing Him to be sacrificed on the cross for our sins. This by no means negates the need, however, to respond to this offer and accept it through obedient faith.

Question: Do you know the difference in WORKS and GRACE? In Works, one does something for God: In Grace, God does something for us. Which would you rather go out to eternity with? Something you did or something God did. Which would afford the greatest JOY?

Response: Grace is actually “unmerited favor:” it is a passive term. God demonstrated grace through the sacrifice of His Son and the remission of sin that we may receive thanks to Him. As James has demonstrated amply in James 2:14-26, however, God is not pleased with simple intellectual assent to the work of Christ, but acceptance of His grace through the manifestation of His love through you. We are saved by grace through obedient faith.

Question: Was Paul Thankful that God sent Him to preach only one part of the Gospel? 1 Cor. 1:17.

Response: Let us again examine 1 Corinthians 1:17:

For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not in wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made void.

It should be first stated that Paul not baptizing anyone by no means prevents him from preaching concerning baptism. We have seen earlier that in 1 Corinthians 1, Paul is speaking about those who would believe that they were baptized in the name of Paul; therefore, he no longer baptizes. If God commanded him to not baptize, he was not faithful to the command, since in Corinth alone he baptized Crispus, Gaius, and the household of Stephanas. We have also seen that the Gospel of Paul is the same as the Gospel of Peter and of James and of John, and since we know that Peter preached on baptism, we may be sure that Paul did also. Paul preached the whole Gospel of God (Romans 1:16-17), and baptism is a part of that Gospel.

Question: If Faith always includes and involves Baptism – as you preach it – why did the Holy Spirit use two different words – if they mean and include each other? Mark l6:16.

Response: Why? I am not the judge of the Holy Spirit, nor am I aware of His ways beyond what is revealed. Baptism and faith, however, are different entities, since faith requires more than baptism but baptism is a part of obedient faith. We also see many times in the Scriptures where baptism is understood to be a part of the “obedient faith” which the Apostles speak of.

Question: In Gal. 3:26, 27: “For Ye are ALL” (V. 26)

“For as many of you”- (V. 27). Do these two statements mean and include the same people? Had ALL the people in verse 26 become Children of God? Had ALL of them been baptized or AS MANY OF YOU as had been baptized?

Response: Let us examine Galatians 3:26-27:

For ye are all sons of God, through faith, in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as were baptized into Christ did put on Christ.

Paul is explaining to the Galatians their existence in Christ. We see the following in Galatians 3:28-29:

There can be neither Jew nor Greek, there can be neither bond nor free, there can be no male and female; for ye all are one man in Christ Jesus. And if ye are Christ’s, then are ye Abraham’s seed, heirs according to promise.

Evidently there had been some question in Galatia over the existence of Gentiles in Christ and Jews in Christ. Paul is explaining to them first that “all” are sons of God in Christ Jesus, and he then explains the means by which one puts on Christ: “for as many of you as were baptized into Christ did put on Christ.” Then Paul concludes by saying that there are no cultural or social distinctions in Christ or in the seed of Abraham.

Therefore, are the two groups different? Only in the way they are being addressed. Paul speaks of them collectively in verse 26: “you are ALL sons of God.” Yet, lest they believe that they are the sons of God for any other reason than the truth, Paul then speaks about their individual action: “for as many of you as were baptized into Christ.” The understanding is now made clear: all may be added to the Kingdom, and this salvation comes when one is baptized. If one is baptized properly, one has become a part of Christ, no matter his cultural, ethnic, social, or racial status. Let us praise God for the life that is in His Son!

A Response to “101 Questions For Campbellites”

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